Yes it did. This is conclusive if you take into account scripture and the original Greek version of it. In the gospel of Matthew, Jesus spoke about what the scribes and Pharisees said about Him and John the Baptist in an effort to marginilize them. John didn’t eat or drink, because he only ate locusts and honey. Saying he didn’t eat meant he didn’t indulge himself with food. They said of him that he had a devil, telling the people “This is why you shouldn’t listen to him.” Continuing in Matthew 11:19, Jesus said “The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, ‘Behold a gluttonous man, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners.’ But wisdom is judged of her children.” If the wine Jesus drank did not have alcohol, why would they call Him a winebibber? The original Greek word there for “drinking” was “πίνω” (PEE-no), which means to “imbibe”.

In Deuteronomy 14:26, Moses sent word to the Israelites from God over what they can buy with their money, saying, “And you shall use that money for whatever your souls longs for, for oxen, or for sheep, or for wine, or for strong drink, or for whatever your soul desires: and you shall eat before the Lord your God, and you shall rejoice, you and your household.” This verse was about feasting in the Lord’s presence during religious festivals, such as the week long Passover. Even for religious celebrations it was lawful to drink alcohol.

Jesus drank wine with alcohol, so it is lawful to drink alcoholic beverages. It is a great sin to be a drunkard. It’s a hard way to find yourself back. If you have problems controlling alcohol, don’t put it to your lips. If you decide to never drink, then that’s fine, too. Do not, however, pretend you are being more biblically correct by not drinking than those who do, because you most certainly are not.